Gość: Kagan
IP: *.vic.bigpond.net.au
19.01.03, 10:04
K:1) How many of those mentioned by you (www.jinfo.org/)
Nobel Prize lauretaes are true Jews (of Semitic, i.e. Hebrew) origin,
and how many are so-called Askhenazi Jews, i.e. descendants of ARIAN
Khazars (see, for example, Koestler, The Thirteent Tribe,
http://198.62.75.1/www2/koestler/
)?
-Those who are readily identifiable as non-Ashkenazic are: Modigliani,
Canetti, Muller, Luria, Benacerraf, Levi-Montalcini, Cassin, Born,
Segre, and Cohen-Tannoudji.
LK: On which basis? Muller (Mueller) looks like German name, so implies
Khazar origin. Levi & Cohen are also popular Askhenazic surnames. For
example: Levinsky is almost 100% Askhenazic...
-There are undoubtedly several more, but these ten alone constitute 7% of the
total. (Max Born's Ashkenazic surname is a shortened version of the
Sephardic name Abravanel, which was also the original name of the Swiss
mathematicians Bernoulli). During the period when most Nobel Prize winners
were born, the Sephardim constituted about 10% of world Jewry (see:
http://www.sephardim.com/html/lore.html
). This data would, therefore, seem to be strongly at odds with your
contention that the 100-fold over-representation of Jews among Nobel Prize
winners is an Aryan Khazar phenomenon rather than a Semitic Jewish one. If,
in fact, as you claim, the 10,000% over-representation of Jews among Nobel
Prize winners is a Khazar phenomenon, we should expect to find a similar over-
representation among the Turkic peoples of the Caucasus, Crimea, etc. Of
course, we don't.
LK: Because only Khazars dispersed in Europe, not even Ottoman Turks,
which conquered permanently only small part of Europe. It is, most likely,
that special mixture of Jewish (Hebrew), Khazar, Slavic & Germanic genes
("blood"), which gives superior "intelectual" intelligence. "Pure blod"
Turkic people are quite inteligent, but obiously not as so-called
Askhenazi Jews. I have never implied that Askhenazi Jews are "pure" Khazars,
they are, obviously, a mixture between ancient Hebrews, Khazars, as well as
Slavic and Germanic, and even Baltic people...
- More generally, the Khazar theory of Ashkenazic Jewish origins has
been thoroughly discredited by DNA evidence in recent years. This
evidence shows that the Kohanim (priestly caste-about 5% of all male
Jews) among all the the major Jewish groups (Ashkenazic, Sephardic,
Iraqi, Roman, but not Ethiopian) have distinct Y chromosome markers
indicating common patrilineal descent from an ancestor who lived
at roughly the time of the Exodus, consistent with the tradition
that the Kohanim are direct patrilineal descendents of the first
high priest, Aaron. If Ashkenazic Kohanim are, in fact, descended
from Khazars, how did they get the same unique genetic markers as
the non-Ashkenazic Kohanim? Also, you might ask yourself how it
came to pass that the Ashkenazim, if they are descended from the
Turkic Khazars, ended up speaking Yiddish, a medieval German dialect
written with Hebrew characters (which is why they are called Ashkenazim,
the word "Ashkenaz" being Hebrew for "Germany").
LK: The DNA evidence is not convincing, as is based on too many asumptions,
and open to manipulation, as the test population used for such "research" was
simply not representative, and selected in such a way, to support a given
hypothesis. As to the origin of Yiddish: it is not simply a "spoiled"
German, it is a separate language, with plenty Slavic words. As to
Hebrew characters: they were also used in medieval Poland to write Polish
texts. Only in 16th century Poles decided to use Latin script.
- The attempts to explain this by the proponents of the Khazar theory of
Ashkenazic Jewish origins have led to absurd claims such as the one that
Yiddish is, in fact, a Slavonic language that was somehow "relexified," i.
e., had all of its words replaced by German cognates.
LK: It is, of course, wrong. Yiddish is a Germanic language, with plenty
of Slavic words and constructions, the same way Polish is a Slavic language,
but with many borowings from German, i.e "burmistrz"="Burgmeister",
"ratusz"="Rathaus", "rynek"="Ring" etc.
- Steve Olson, in his recently published "Mapping Human History" (Houghton
Mifflin, 2002), summarizes the genetic research as follows (p. 113):
"Genetic research has now demonstrated that the Ashkenazim are indeed
descended from Jews who migrated to Europe from the Middle East.
Separate studies of their Y chromosomes and mitochondrial DNA have
revealed characteristically Middle Eastern haplotypes. The Ashkenazim
and their European neighbors intermarried enough to introduce some
mitochondrial DNA and Y chromosomes from elsewhere and to influence
physical appearance. But estimates of admixture are lower than expected.
Based on data gathered from the Y chromosome, fewer than one in
one hundred Jewish women had children with non-Jewish men in each
generation."
LK: Again, higly speculative. Firstly Askhenazi Jews are NOT "pure"
Khazars, so they must have some traces of "Hebrew" DNA.
Secondly, to change someone's appearance requires a lot of DNA changes.
Ancient semitic Hebrews looked more like Jaser Arafat, than Albert
Einstein or Ariel Sharon.
Thirdly there was much more intermixing between Askhenazi Jews and Slavic &
Germanic people than interested parties would like to admit. It is like in
South Africa, where live millions od so-called Cape Coloured, a mixture
between local African peoples and God-fearing puritan Protestants, mostly
from Holland.
-A 1979 study of biochemical genetic data by Karlin, Kenett, and Bonne-
Tamir, published by the American Society for Human Genetics, found
"Ashkenazi, Sephardi, and Iraqi Jewish populations to be consistently
close in genetic constitution and distant from all other populations,
namely Yemenite and Cochin Jews, the Arabs, and the non-Jewish German
and Russian populations." Other studies of neutral genetic markers
such as fingerprints, which change extremely slowly over time, have
reached similar conclusions.
LK: On which basis? It is an example of corrupted "Jewish" science, providing
"politically corect" answers. How it could be so, that
Askhenazi "Jews" look more like Turks, Slavs or Germans, than
semitic Palestynians? Answer is simple: Askhenazi "Jews" are
not semitic people, and their main link to the ancient Hebrews is
cultural and religiuis, NOT by "blood" (DNA).
2) Were also the Jews (or rather Khazars): Robert Merton & Myron Sholes
(economics, 1997) declared insolvent one year later after collapse of their
"business" (so-called investment fund)?
- Is that supposed to discredit their work? The Black-Scholes theory
and its extensions is in widespread use throughout the financial
world for derivatives pricing and the like. There are hundreds of
mathematicians and theoretical physicists employed on Wall Street
doing this work; they wouldn't be employed for long if the theory
didn't make money. The greatest economist of the twentieth century,
Ludwig von Mises, once told his wife that although he was a great
economist, he had no idea how to make money. He also failed to receive
a Nobel Prize, although his Aryan student, Hayek, did. (Incidently,
the most financially successful of the great economists was David
Ricardo, the father of economic science, who was a Sephardic Jew).
LK: All those "experts" on financial "science" do NOT create real wealth,
they only speculate on finacial, i.e. unreal, artificial markets. Does not
matter, how much paper (or plastic/electronic) money they "create",
it is always only a virtual money, a record in computer, which is later only
used to further speculation. If one had tried to change this money into real,
non-financial goods and services, that US dolalr would collapse in
one day (anyway, it is now below the Euro). And finally, the greatest
